(no cooking update yesterday; nothing new to report anyway)

I was reading an interesting article about how polling voters about the upcoming presidential election might be undercounting Obama’s support by as much as 2% because telephone polls don’t reach people who only have a mobile phone, no land-line.

But if those people can’t be reached by pollsters, I don’t fully understand how they can know the following about the differences between mobile-only people and people with land-lines:

land-line users — even in the same younger demographic groups — have different attitudes from those of their wireless counterparts. They are much more likely to own a home, to oppose gay marriage, to have health insurance, to be married with children. Surely pollsters cannot claim that the two groups reflect the same opinions in the midst of a national election campaign.

 

Seriously, I’m baffled. What am I missing? How can they know that? It’s very interesting if it’s true, that’s for sure.

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